Is John 1:18 translated poorly in the English Standard Bible? - Quora

Answer (1 of 18): In regards to John 1.18, the root of the issue between the KJV and ESV is not in translation, but rather in the underlying Greek texts used to translate each. Simply put, the KJV is translated from different source material than the ESV. So rather than translation, this become

Can someone translate John 1:1 from the original Greek to English? - Quora

Why isn't Buddha or any other non-Abrahamic religion mentioned in Abrahamic scriptures? - Quora

Some say Christ is a created being because He is called “the beginning of God's creation” in Revelation 3:14. How can we respond to this idea? - Quora

Why didn't Jesus know that he was God? - Quora

John 1:18 - Bible verse

Is the NWT Bible's translation of John 1:1 accurate? - Quora

Is “The Message Version” a good Bible translation? - Quora

What does John 1:1 say in other Bible translations? - Quora

John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

What are 20 observations of John 3:16? - Quora

Why did Jehovah's Witnesses change John 1:1 just to comply with their beliefs? - Quora

Can you explain John 1:1? - Quora

What would be the correct translation in John 1:51, 'hereafter' or 'hereinafter'? Why? - Quora